McAfee Secured

Microsoft MS-102 Bundle

Exam Code: MS-102

Exam Name Microsoft 365 Administrator

Certification Provider: Microsoft

Corresponding Certification: Microsoft 365 Certified: Administrator Expert

Microsoft MS-102 Bundle $44.99

Pass Microsoft MS-102 with Real Questions From Testking

Download Web's Best MS-102 Exam Preparation Materials Today

  • Questions & Answers

    MS-102 Questions & Answers

    473 Questions & Answers

    Questions & Answers Testing Engine software allows you to practice questions and answers in real MS-102 exam environment.

  • MS-102 Video Course

    MS-102 Video Course

    61 Video Lectures

    MS-102 Video Course is developed by Microsoft Professionals to help you pass MS-102 exam.

    Description

    This course will improve your knowledge and skills required to pass Microsoft 365 Administrator exam.
  • Study Guide

    MS-102 Study Guide

    298 PDF Pages

    Study Guide will give you a practical experience regarding the subject and provide an academic background. MS-102 Study Guide is available in PDF format.

Microsoft 365 Administrator (MS-102) Practice Tests

Satisfaction Guaranteed

Money Back Guarantee

Testking provides hassle-free money back guarantee with our products. That is because we have 100% trust in the abilities of our professional and experience product team, and our record is a proof of that.

99.6% PASS RATE
Total Cost: $194.97
Bundle Price: $149.98

Purchase Individually

  • Questions & Answers

    Questions & Answers

    473 Questions

    $124.99
  • MS-102 Video Course

    Video Course

    61 Video Lectures

    $39.99
  • Study Guide

    Study Guide

    298 PDF Pages

    $29.99

Microsoft MS-102 Practice Test 84

Question 830

An approved cloud app now contains a newly installed extension requesting broad file access. What should reviewers assess?

  1. Trust the approved application's extension because messages from its publisher have low phishing scores, without evaluating its OAuth grants
  2. The approved app automatically makes every extension safe
  3. Only changing the extension's name removes its access
  4. Extension consent, scopes, actor and observed API activity separately from base app sanctioning

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Approval of a platform does not authorize every plugin.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Sender reputation says little about newly requested file API scopes; extensions need separate consent and activity assessment.

B:

Third-party extensions can introduce risk.

C:

Renaming does not revoke OAuth grants.

Question 831

A file policy will remove external links from thousands of documents. What should be done before enabling remediation?

  1. Delete all audit data to reduce noise
  2. Use testing or monitoring mode and validate scope and approved exceptions
  3. Modify tenant mail routing as the rollback plan
  4. Run broad removal immediately without owner review

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Bulk governance actions can disrupt legitimate collaboration.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Audit removal cannot validate effect.

C:

MX cannot restore SaaS sharing links.

D:

Unverified scope can interrupt business.

Question 832

A Cloud Apps activity policy identifies risky events, but the SOC never receives notifications. What should be checked?

  1. Alert generation, policy notification settings, recipient integration and action status
  2. Change an organization's file retention period while leaving the Cloud Apps activity policy disabled for the sanctioned app
  3. Confirm the app's sanction tag without reviewing the activity policy's alert configuration
  4. Only the tenant default language

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Detection and delivery may fail at different steps.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Purview retention is not a substitute for a Cloud Apps activity policy matching the observed API or user actions.

C:

An application tag does not ensure the risky-activity rule actually creates and delivers notifications to the SOC.

D:

Language is not notification integration.

Question 833

Cloud Discovery detects employees uploading customer records to a high-risk unsanctioned storage service. What should security coordinate?

  1. Assume all uploaded data was publicly leaked without investigation
  2. Only rename the app in the report
  3. Ignore it because the service is popular
  4. Investigate actual data movement and apply supported app access blocking with business owners

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Risk response combines evidence and governance.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Upload is not proof of external publication.

B:

Renaming does not block the upload path.

C:

Popularity does not satisfy policy.

Question 834

Discovery identifies a SaaS hostname without a catalog risk assessment. What is appropriate?

  1. Automatically sanction every uncataloged hostname
  2. Investigate the service, traffic context and available vendor assurance before sanctioning
  3. Automatically block all HTTPS traffic to all unclassified hosts
  4. Only use the app's marketing description

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Unknown apps need evidence-based classification.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Unknown security cannot justify approval.

C:

A blanket block can disrupt business.

D:

Marketing alone is not independent security evidence.

Question 835

The SOC expects Cloud Apps activity logs from years before connector enablement. What should be explained?

  1. Increasing Secure Score creates missing events
  2. Every new connector backfills all activity indefinitely
  3. Changing a file label preserves all past API logs
  4. Historical visibility depends on supported connectors, prior collection and retention

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

A new connector cannot guarantee full retroactive data.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Posture metrics do not reconstruct history.

B:

Data sources have retention and access limits.

C:

Labels are not a telemetry archive.

Question 836

The Cloud Apps Microsoft 365 connector dashboard last synchronized 18 hours ago, yet users are signing in. Which observation best differentiates ingestion delay from genuinely absent events?

  1. Compare connector last successful synchronization and source event timestamps against observed admin audit events
  2. Increase the suspicious file download threshold to reduce alerts
  3. Disable all other Cloud Apps connectors to force Microsoft 365 ingestion
  4. Assume the last displayed event timestamp proves users stopped using Microsoft 365

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

A late connector checkpoint despite fresh upstream events points to ingestion lag.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Thresholds do not restore an outdated activity feed.

C:

Unrelated connectors cannot repair a missing upstream synchronization.

D:

An incomplete feed cannot establish inactivity.

Question 837

Cloud Discovery reports heavy traffic to a newly detected SaaS app, but a director asks how many distinct employees use it weekly. What should the analyst change in the report?

  1. Use the application's vendor security rating as the user count
  2. Treat each public IP as exactly one employee
  3. Select the correct weekly discovery interval and review the distinct user dimension rather than byte volume
  4. Count every HTTP request as a separate employee

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Traffic size and distinct user counts answer different questions.

Incorrect Answers

A:

A risk rating is not an adoption metric.

B:

Shared egress and NAT can combine multiple users.

D:

One client can generate many requests during a single session.

Question 838

Firewall logs show 2,000 cloud-app sessions while endpoint telemetry shows 3,000 for the same period. What must be reconciled before comparing counts?

  1. Compare only app vendor names while ignoring user and timestamps
  2. Source coverage, observation window, session definitions, and potential duplicate traffic
  3. Assume the endpoint source contains only fraudulent sessions
  4. Automatically add the two counts to obtain unique sessions

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Different collectors may observe different paths or count sessions differently.

Incorrect Answers

A:

App names alone cannot identify duplicate events.

C:

Collector origin does not determine whether activity is malicious.

D:

Overlapping collectors can double-count the same activity.

Question 839

Cloud Discovery marks a cloud storage app as sanctioned, but security wants to block downloads of regulated content from unmanaged devices. What additional control is needed?

  1. Apply an appropriate conditional/session access policy to the app and the relevant user-device conditions
  2. Delete the app connector before applying access controls
  3. Mark the app sanctioned a second time to apply download restrictions
  4. Reduce the app's risk score manually in the discovery report

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Sanctioning classifies the app; contextual access controls address unmanaged device downloads.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Removing visibility cannot create a controlled download rule.

C:

The sanctioned label alone does not encode a device-specific download rule.

D:

A scoring change does not enforce browser activity restrictions.

Question 840

The proxy feeds Cloud Discovery but reports every session under the gateway appliance rather than its actual employee. What data attribute is most directly missing?

  1. Authenticated source-user identity or a reliable proxy-to-user mapping in the uploaded logs
  2. A global Cloud Apps sanction decision for the proxy server
  3. An additional file sensitivity label in SharePoint
  4. An Exchange Online accepted-domain configuration

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

A shared gateway address cannot by itself attribute events to individuals.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Sanctioning is not a replacement for log identity information.

C:

Content classification does not identify the web request actor.

D:

Mail recipient domains do not supply proxy user attribution.