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Microsoft MS-102 Bundle

Exam Code: MS-102

Exam Name Microsoft 365 Administrator

Certification Provider: Microsoft

Corresponding Certification: Microsoft 365 Certified: Administrator Expert

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Microsoft 365 Administrator (MS-102) Practice Tests

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Microsoft MS-102 Practice Test 79

Question 780

A required business site is blocked under a broad web category policy. What should the admin do?

  1. Validate the site's category and use a narrowly scoped exception if justified
  2. Disable all categories for the entire fleet
  3. Assume all classified sites are malicious
  4. Use an email alias to bypass the browser block

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Targeted tuning balances productivity and protection.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Global removal increases exposure.

C:

Categories include legitimate business resources.

D:

Aliases do not change endpoint web policy.

Question 781

Security wants to group high-value servers for monitoring and response without changing their IP addresses. What metadata can help?

  1. A retention label on every server hostname
  2. Create one separate device inventory name for each high-value server without Defender group membership rules
  3. Appropriate device tags and device group criteria in Defender
  4. Change every server display name to 'Critical' only

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Tags can support scoping and organization.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Content labels are not device tagging.

B:

A device nickname alone does not establish the intended response scope or permissions of a managed device group.

D:

Names alone are brittle policy boundaries.

Question 782

An endpoint sensor intermittently crashes and creates long reporting gaps. What should support collect?

  1. Only tenant group naming conventions
  2. Only Outlook calendar meeting duration
  3. Supported MDE diagnostic logs, service health and crash evidence
  4. Exclude the entire operating system volume from scanning before collecting Defender sensor diagnostic evidence

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Agent diagnostics can explain missing telemetry.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Names do not diagnose service faults.

B:

Calendar entries do not reveal sensor crashes.

D:

Overbroad exclusions weaken protection and do not diagnose the sensor process crashes or telemetry gaps.

Question 783

Endpoint events from a remote site are out of chronological order versus XDR incident timestamps. What should be normalized?

  1. Device clocks, UTC timestamps and event ingestion times
  2. Compare local display times without converting them to a common UTC event timeline
  3. Sort incidents solely by ingestion order and assume every event was generated in that same order
  4. Only the tenant's default language

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Clock skew can distort an incident timeline.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Local timezone labels can conceal clock drift and event-ingestion lag when correlating endpoint and incident records.

C:

Ingestion order can differ from actual event creation time because of network latency or buffered endpoint telemetry.

D:

Language does not synchronize devices.

Question 784

IT requests a formal exception for one unpatchable critical software build. What should the security reviewer capture?

  1. A permanent hidden inventory state for the device
  2. Asset scope, compensating controls, expiration and accountable risk acceptance
  3. Only the name of the ticket requester
  4. Assume one exception covers every future CVE

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Exceptions need traceable and time-bounded governance.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Hiding does not reduce risk.

C:

Owner identity alone lacks mitigation evidence.

D:

A specific risk decision does not waive unrelated exposures.

Question 785

Defender reports more vulnerable software immediately after onboarding 500 previously unmanaged devices. What does the trend likely mean?

  1. The number of security gaps must always decrease after onboarding
  2. Assume a newly installed security update created every discovered vulnerability
  3. Broader asset visibility may reveal preexisting weaknesses
  4. Onboarding itself installed all vulnerable programs

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Increased findings do not necessarily mean new vulnerabilities appeared.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Discovery often exposes more issues.

B:

A rise after onboarding can reflect newly observable existing exposures rather than a sudden wave of new software flaws.

D:

Visibility changes can explain the inventory jump.

Question 786

A SOC reviewer may classify alerts but should not isolate financial servers. What permission architecture is appropriate?

  1. Separate investigation permissions from high-impact response actions by device scope
  2. Remove all review rights so no one can see incidents
  3. Share one analyst account for all approvals
  4. Make every viewer a global endpoint administrator

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Least privilege limits accidental or malicious isolation.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Visibility is necessary for operations.

C:

Shared access erases accountability.

D:

Broad privilege increases disruption risk.

Question 787

An analyst receives a sample from an affected laptop and compares it with an uploaded intelligence indicator. What verification matters?

  1. Use only the displayed icon and filename
  2. Compute and compare a supported cryptographic hash of the exact file bytes
  3. Compare the sample's filename and path instead of computing a digest of its actual bytes
  4. Compare only file creation dates

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

A hash identifies content independent of filename.

Incorrect Answers

A:

These can be forged or reused.

C:

Two binaries may share names and paths while having different contents, so file hash comparison is the more reliable artifact check.

D:

Timestamps do not prove byte identity.

Question 788

A device shows healthy sensor connectivity but also multiple unresolved high-severity vulnerabilities. How should it be described?

  1. Telemetry health is good while software exposure remains unresolved
  2. Treat sensor connectivity as proof that no vulnerable software remains on the system
  3. An unpatched device must have an offline sensor
  4. Healthy telemetry proves all software patched

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Sensor availability and protection posture are distinct.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Healthy telemetry is only an observation prerequisite and does not remediate inventory findings or exposed packages.

C:

Exposure does not determine connectivity.

D:

Reporting does not remediate vulnerabilities.

Question 789

IT configured a deployment window for patches, but Defender recommends immediate security action on exploited endpoints. What should be coordinated?

  1. Change the device display color in inventory
  2. Risk-based emergency change approval and validated remediation timing
  3. Always wait indefinitely for the usual maintenance window
  4. Disable vulnerability alerts until the window arrives

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Actively exploited vulnerabilities may justify accelerated changes.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Visual labels do not apply patches.

C:

Uncontrolled exposure can continue.

D:

Suppression does not reduce risk.

Question 790

A user reports unwanted browser redirects but Defender has no active incident. What is an appropriate next step?

  1. Assume no action is required because alerts are absent
  2. Investigate browser extensions, device processes and network telemetry with supported endpoint tools
  3. Reset the user's browser profile and clear history before preserving suspicious extension and process evidence
  4. Disable antivirus to reproduce the redirect

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

No current alert does not rule out malicious behavior.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Detection can miss unknown activity.

C:

Immediate broad resets can remove investigation evidence and do not test which extension, process or network redirection caused the behavior.

D:

Weakening protection is unnecessary.