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Microsoft SC-200 Bundle

Exam Code: SC-200

Exam Name Microsoft Security Operations Analyst

Certification Provider: Microsoft

Corresponding Certification: Microsoft Certified: Security Operations Analyst Associate

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Microsoft SC-200 Practice Test 2

Question 10

The media company SOC needs to measure ASR rule impact before enforcing on every workstation, and its change advisory board asks for the technical basis of the recommended method. Which explanation identifies the most relevant capability?

  1. The LSASS-specific ASR rule limits a distinct credential-theft technique.
  2. Audit mode generates evidence for compatibility assessment without first blocking every match.
  3. Read or response capability should follow role and group permissions rather than global administrator rights.
  4. The ASR rule addresses Office-spawned processes specifically.

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

Audit mode generates evidence for compatibility assessment without first blocking every match.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Preventing common credential theft from the Windows LSASS process does not measure ASR rule impact before enforcing on every workstation.

C:

Granting incident responders visibility without automatically granting policy-wide administration does not measure ASR rule impact before enforcing on every workstation.

D:

Preventing Office applications from creating child processes used in malware chains does not measure ASR rule impact before enforcing on every workstation.

Question 11

The pilot team switched an ASR rule straight to Block and now has application complaints without a prior compatibility baseline. Which explanation best accounts for the specific failure?

  1. The credential-stealing-from-LSASS ASR rule is configured for Audit rather than Block
  2. The rule-specific exclusion does not match the verified file path or permitted exclusion scope
  3. The pilot omitted an initial audit-mode observation period and associated ASR reports
  4. The analyst is checking incident status rather than the pending Actions queue in Defender Action center

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

The pilot omitted an initial audit-mode observation period and associated ASR reports.

Incorrect Answers

A:

The credential-stealing-from-LSASS ASR rule is configured for Audit rather than Block; the pilot omitted an initial audit-mode observation period and associated ASR reports.

B:

The rule-specific exclusion does not match the verified file path or permitted exclusion scope; the pilot omitted an initial audit-mode observation period and associated ASR reports.

D:

The analyst is checking incident status rather than the pending Actions queue in Defender Action center; the pilot omitted an initial audit-mode observation period and associated ASR reports.

Question 12

During a controlled investigation, an ASR policy is run in audit mode during a representative workload test. Which observation most directly verifies the intended technical behavior?

  1. The matching LSASS ASR event records a blocked action, rather than an audited-only event
  2. The allowed executable launches successfully, while an unrelated prohibited test remains blocked by the ASR rule
  3. ASR audit events enumerate candidate matches while the affected applications continue running
  4. The pending action appears in Action center with its device, proposed action and approval status

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

ASR audit events enumerate candidate matches while the affected applications continue running.

Incorrect Answers

A:

The matching LSASS ASR event records a blocked action, rather than an audited-only event. ASR audit events enumerate candidate matches while the affected applications continue running.

B:

The allowed executable launches successfully, while an unrelated prohibited test remains blocked by the ASR rule. ASR audit events enumerate candidate matches while the affected applications continue running.

D:

The pending action appears in Action center with its device, proposed action and approval status. ASR audit events enumerate candidate matches while the affected applications continue running.

Question 13

A legal practice needs to permit a verified business application blocked by one ASR rule without disabling all rules. Its current security configuration cannot meet this specific operational requirement. Which action should the SOC implement?

  1. Enable the Office child-process attack surface reduction rule in the appropriate enforcement mode
  2. Configure a tightly scoped supported ASR exclusion after validating the impact
  3. Configure potentially unwanted application protection in the Defender endpoint policies
  4. Configure the ASR rule that blocks credential stealing from LSASS

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

A narrow exclusion preserves other protections and avoids tenant-wide disabling.

Incorrect Answers

A:

The ASR rule addresses Office-spawned processes specifically.

C:

PUA protection targets unwanted applications rather than sign-in events.

D:

The LSASS-specific ASR rule limits a distinct credential-theft technique.

Question 14

The government contractor SOC needs to permit a verified business application blocked by one ASR rule without disabling all rules, and its change advisory board asks for the technical basis of the recommended method. Which explanation identifies the most relevant capability?

  1. A narrow exclusion preserves other protections and avoids tenant-wide disabling.
  2. Manual playbook execution avoids an organization-wide auto-trigger for an isolated event.
  3. The LSASS-specific ASR rule limits a distinct credential-theft technique.
  4. Audit mode generates evidence for compatibility assessment without first blocking every match.

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

A narrow exclusion preserves other protections and avoids tenant-wide disabling.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Running a corrective response only on one existing incident selected by an analyst does not permit a verified business application blocked by one ASR rule without disabling all rules.

C:

Preventing common credential theft from the Windows LSASS process does not permit a verified business application blocked by one ASR rule without disabling all rules.

D:

Measuring ASR rule impact before enforcing on every workstation does not permit a verified business application blocked by one ASR rule without disabling all rules.

Question 15

A business application still fails to start after a proposed ASR exclusion; other applications obey the same rule and the exclusion path does not match the blocked executable. Which explanation best accounts for the specific failure?

  1. The rule-specific exclusion does not match the verified file path or permitted exclusion scope
  2. The credential-stealing-from-LSASS ASR rule is configured for Audit rather than Block
  3. The pilot omitted an initial audit-mode observation period and associated ASR reports
  4. The server's device-group membership rule or group precedence places it in the wrong automation group

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

The rule-specific exclusion does not match the verified file path or permitted exclusion scope.

Incorrect Answers

B:

The credential-stealing-from-LSASS ASR rule is configured for Audit rather than Block; the rule-specific exclusion does not match the verified file path or permitted exclusion scope.

C:

The pilot omitted an initial audit-mode observation period and associated ASR reports; the rule-specific exclusion does not match the verified file path or permitted exclusion scope.

D:

The server's device-group membership rule or group precedence places it in the wrong automation group; the rule-specific exclusion does not match the verified file path or permitted exclusion scope.

Question 16

During a controlled investigation, one approved signed business executable is excluded from a particular ASR rule. Which observation most directly verifies the intended technical behavior?

  1. The matching LSASS ASR event records a blocked action, rather than an audited-only event
  2. ASR audit events enumerate candidate matches while the affected applications continue running
  3. Each endpoint belongs to its intended group and displays the corresponding configured remediation autonomy
  4. The allowed executable launches successfully, while an unrelated prohibited test remains blocked by the ASR rule

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

The allowed executable launches successfully, while an unrelated prohibited test remains blocked by the ASR rule.

Incorrect Answers

A:

The matching LSASS ASR event records a blocked action, rather than an audited-only event; the allowed executable launches successfully, while an unrelated prohibited test remains blocked by the ASR rule.

B:

ASR audit events enumerate candidate matches while the affected applications continue running; the allowed executable launches successfully, while an unrelated prohibited test remains blocked by the ASR rule.

C:

Each endpoint belongs to its intended group and displays the corresponding configured remediation autonomy; the allowed executable launches successfully, while an unrelated prohibited test remains blocked by the ASR rule.

Question 17

A media company needs to automatically remediate validated threats in a dedicated low-risk endpoint group. Its current security configuration cannot meet this specific operational requirement. Which action should the SOC implement?

  1. Place devices in correctly scoped Defender for Endpoint groups with different automation levels
  2. Review pending remediation actions in Microsoft Defender Action center
  3. Assign the device group the Full automated investigation and remediation level
  4. Create an incident-created automation rule with assignment conditions and action

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Full automation can act on qualified malicious evidence without requiring manual approval.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Device-group membership controls the automation level used for matching devices.

B:

Action center tracks pending and completed remediation rather than being the source of file events.

D:

Automation rules can route incident work without requiring a custom KQL detector.

Question 18

The software firm SOC needs to automatically remediate validated threats in a dedicated low-risk endpoint group, and its change advisory board asks for the technical basis of the recommended method. Which explanation identifies the most relevant capability?

  1. Device-group membership controls the automation level used for matching devices.
  2. Action center tracks pending and completed remediation rather than being the source of file events.
  3. Device groups and RBAC constrain what resources authorized analysts can manage.
  4. Full automation can act on qualified malicious evidence without requiring manual approval.

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Full automation can act on qualified malicious evidence without requiring manual approval.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Apply aing different remediation autonomy to high-value devices than to workstations does not automatically remediate validated threats in a dedicated low-risk endpoint group.

B:

Finding investigations whose remediation actions are awaiting a decision does not automatically remediate validated threats in a dedicated low-risk endpoint group.

C:

Separating endpoint investigation visibility for distinct regional SOC teams does not automatically remediate validated threats in a dedicated low-risk endpoint group.

Question 19

A device-group policy is expected to remediate supported threats automatically. The Action center instead shows remediation pending manual approval. What group setting should the analyst check first?

  1. Whether Microsoft Sentinel has an incident-notification email rule
  2. Whether Purview Audit stores more than 90 days of data
  3. Whether the device group has semi-automated rather than Full automated remediation configured
  4. Whether the endpoint device name has been shortened

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

Semi-automated approval levels defer qualifying remediation actions for analyst review, unlike Full automation.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Incident email routing does not govern Defender for Endpoint remediation approval.

B:

Purview Audit retention is separate from EDR response autonomy.

D:

Device naming has no bearing on action approval policy.

Question 20

The endpoint team claims that full automated investigation and remediation is active for a test device group. A benign test creates an action requiring analyst approval. What evidence most directly contradicts the claimed autonomy for that device?

  1. The Action center contains an approved action on another device
  2. The device is tagged as a high-value asset in inventory
  3. A Sentinel analytic rule raised an unrelated alert
  4. The device group is configured for a semi-automated remediation level rather than Full automation

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Semi-automated settings leave qualifying remediation actions awaiting analyst approval; Full automation can apply supported actions automatically.

Incorrect Answers

A:

A separate device’s approved action does not establish the tested device group’s remediation setting.

B:

A device-value tag alone does not prove its configured automated-investigation autonomy.

C:

A Sentinel detection does not establish Defender for Endpoint remediation approval mode.