Question 90 The government contractor SOC needs to reduce installations of known potentially unwanted software on managed endpoints, and its change advisory board asks for the technical basis of the recommended method. Which explanation identifies the most relevant capability? A file indicator can govern an observed SHA indicator rather than changing retention or identity policy. PUA protection targets unwanted applications rather than sign-in events. Tamper Protection protects supported Defender security settings against unauthorized changes. Device-group membership controls the automation level used for matching devices. Explanation Correct Answer B:PUA protection targets unwanted applications rather than sign-in events. Incorrect Answers A:Controlling access to a known malicious file hash across managed endpoints does not reduce installations of known potentially unwanted software on managed endpoints. C:Preventing local administrators from silently disabling Defender security settings does not reduce installations of known potentially unwanted software on managed endpoints. D:Apply aing different remediation autonomy to high-value devices than to workstations does not reduce installations of known potentially unwanted software on managed endpoints.
Question 91 An approved security baseline is supposed to block potentially unwanted software, but the endpoint policy only reports PUA detections without stopping installation. Which explanation best accounts for the specific failure? PUA protection is set to audit or off rather than the desired block behavior The affected endpoint is outside the effective tamper-protection assignment or supported protection scope The custom file indicator uses a non-blocking response action instead of the supported Block action The incident-triggered automation rule is missing the Run playbook action or points to the wrong playbook Explanation Correct Answer A:PUA protection is set to audit or off rather than the desired block behavior. Incorrect Answers B:The affected endpoint is outside the effective tamper-protection assignment or supported protection scope. PUA protection is set to audit or off rather than the desired block behavior. C:The custom file indicator uses a non-blocking response action instead of the supported Block action. PUA protection is set to audit or off rather than the desired block behavior. D:The incident-triggered automation rule is missing the Run playbook action or points to the wrong playbook. PUA protection is set to audit or off rather than the desired block behavior.
Question 92 During a controlled investigation, a controlled PUA-like installer is attempted on a supported protected endpoint. Which observation most directly verifies the intended technical behavior? An unauthorized local attempt to disable protected settings is denied or reverted and logged The protection result records PUA blocking or quarantine rather than only an audit notification The matching artifact generates a block or remediation action associated with the indicator The incident automation execution and matching Logic Apps run show a ticket creation response Explanation Correct Answer B:The protection result records PUA blocking or quarantine rather than only an audit notification. Incorrect Answers A:An unauthorized local attempt to disable protected settings is denied or reverted and logged; the protection result records PUA blocking or quarantine rather than only an audit notification. C:The matching artifact generates a block or remediation action associated with the indicator; the protection result records PUA blocking or quarantine rather than only an audit notification. D:The incident automation execution and matching Logic Apps run show a ticket creation response; the protection result records PUA blocking or quarantine rather than only an audit notification.
Question 93 A hospital SOC needs to control access to a known malicious file hash across managed endpoints. Its current security configuration cannot meet this specific operational requirement. Which action should the SOC implement? Enable and correctly scope Microsoft Defender Tamper Protection Create a custom file indicator and define a supported block action Apply supported Defender for Endpoint device groups and role-based access scoping Enable supported EDR in block mode on appropriately onboarded devices Explanation Correct Answer B:A file indicator can govern an observed SHA indicator rather than changing retention or identity policy. Incorrect Answers A:Tamper Protection protects supported Defender security settings against unauthorized changes. C:Device groups and RBAC constrain what resources authorized analysts can manage. D:EDR in block mode provides post-breach remediation for supported configurations without replacing the primary antivirus.
Question 94 The financial services SOC SOC needs to control access to a known malicious file hash across managed endpoints, and its change advisory board asks for the technical basis of the recommended method. Which explanation identifies the most relevant capability? A file indicator can govern an observed SHA indicator rather than changing retention or identity policy. Membership and priority determine which automation settings a device inherits. Tamper Protection protects supported Defender security settings against unauthorized changes. EDR in block mode provides post-breach remediation for supported configurations without replacing the primary antivirus. Explanation Correct Answer A:A file indicator can govern an observed SHA indicator rather than changing retention or identity policy. Incorrect Answers B:Ensuring a newly onboarded server joins the intended automated investigation group does not control access to a known malicious file hash across managed endpoints. C:Preventing local administrators from silently disabling Defender security settings does not control access to a known malicious file hash across managed endpoints. D:Detecting and block malicious artifacts even when another antivirus remains primary does not control access to a known malicious file hash across managed endpoints.
Question 95 An indicator rule intended to block an SHA256 still has no effect because its configured action is Alert only. Which explanation best accounts for the specific failure? The custom file indicator uses a non-blocking response action instead of the supported Block action The affected endpoint is outside the effective tamper-protection assignment or supported protection scope PUA protection is set to audit or off rather than the desired block behavior The playbook was not manually invoked against the intended existing incident object Explanation Correct Answer A:The custom file indicator uses a non-blocking response action instead of the supported Block action. Incorrect Answers B:The affected endpoint is outside the effective tamper-protection assignment or supported protection scope; the custom file indicator uses a non-blocking response action instead of the supported Block action. C:PUA protection is set to audit or off rather than the desired block behavior; the custom file indicator uses a non-blocking response action instead of the supported Block action. D:The playbook was not manually invoked against the intended existing incident object; the custom file indicator uses a non-blocking response action instead of the supported Block action.
Question 96 During a controlled investigation, a known malicious test hash matches a supported Defender file indicator configured to Block. Which observation most directly verifies the intended technical behavior? An unauthorized local attempt to disable protected settings is denied or reverted and logged The protection result records PUA blocking or quarantine rather than only an audit notification The matching artifact generates a block or remediation action associated with the indicator A run record links the invocation and resulting action to that incident, with no unrelated cases modified Explanation Correct Answer C:The matching artifact generates a block or remediation action associated with the indicator. Incorrect Answers A:An unauthorized local attempt to disable protected settings is denied or reverted and logged; the matching artifact generates a block or remediation action associated with the indicator. B:The protection result records PUA blocking or quarantine rather than only an audit notification; the matching artifact generates a block or remediation action associated with the indicator. D:A run record links the invocation and resulting action to that incident, with no unrelated cases modified; the matching artifact generates a block or remediation action associated with the indicator.
Question 97 A government contractor needs to automatically assign newly created high-priority Sentinel incidents. Its current security configuration cannot meet this specific operational requirement. Which action should the SOC implement? Create an incident-created automation rule with assignment conditions and action Invoke an authorized Logic Apps playbook from a matching automation rule Configure a tightly scoped supported ASR exclusion after validating the impact Configure an automation rule triggered on the relevant incident update Explanation Correct Answer A:Automation rules can route incident work without requiring a custom KQL detector. Incorrect Answers B:The automation rule supplies incident conditions while the playbook orchestrates integrations. C:A narrow exclusion preserves other protections and avoids tenant-wide disabling. D:Incident-update automation handles workflow changes rather than collecting new logs.
Question 98 The insurance provider SOC needs to automatically assign newly created high-priority Sentinel incidents, and its change advisory board asks for the technical basis of the recommended method. Which explanation identifies the most relevant capability? Tamper Protection protects supported Defender security settings against unauthorized changes. The automation rule supplies incident conditions while the playbook orchestrates integrations. Automation rules can route incident work without requiring a custom KQL detector. Manual playbook execution avoids an organization-wide auto-trigger for an isolated event. Explanation Correct Answer C:Automation rules can route incident work without requiring a custom KQL detector. Incorrect Answers A:Preventing local administrators from silently disabling Defender security settings does not automatically assign newly created high-priority Sentinel incidents. B:Launching an external ticketing workflow when a qualified Sentinel incident is created does not automatically assign newly created high-priority Sentinel incidents. D:Running a corrective response only on one existing incident selected by an analyst does not automatically assign newly created high-priority Sentinel incidents.
Question 99 A Sentinel automation rule changes incident owners when incidents are updated, but newly created incidents remain unassigned. The condition itself matches the incidents. What is wrong? The threat-intelligence connector must be deleted The rule is triggered on incident updates rather than on incident creation The device-group remediation level must be switched to Full The source KQL query needs a project operator Explanation Correct Answer B:The rule trigger must match the incident lifecycle event where ownership should be assigned. Incorrect Answers A:Threat feed deletion does not change the rule trigger. C:Endpoint remediation autonomy is a different workflow. D:KQL column shaping does not resolve the incident lifecycle trigger mismatch.
Question 100 An automation rule should assign a newly created High-severity Sentinel incident to the cloud SOC. Which record verifies that the rule acted on the incident rather than that an alert merely fired? The incident activity shows its owner changed by the matching incident-created automation rule A scheduled analytics query returned suspicious rows A playbook has an old successful run unrelated to the incident The resource logs contain a security alert without any incident assignment Explanation Correct Answer A:An incident activity entry showing the automation change is direct evidence of workflow routing. Incorrect Answers B:Query matches establish detection candidates, not incident ownership changes. C:An unrelated past playbook run does not prove this incident was assigned. D:A standalone alert does not demonstrate an automation rule changed incident ownership.
