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Microsoft AZ-900 Bundle

Exam Code: AZ-900

Exam Name Microsoft Azure Fundamentals

Certification Provider: Microsoft

Corresponding Certification: Microsoft Certified Azure Fundamentals

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Microsoft Azure Fundamentals (AZ-900) Practice Tests

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Microsoft AZ-900 Practice Test 8

Question 70

A legacy application requires a customized OS configuration and software stack. Which service approach usually gives the most direct guest-level control?

  1. IaaS virtual machines
  2. A content-delivery cache as the only runtime
  3. SaaS office collaboration
  4. A fully managed web app plan with no guest access

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

VM hosting permits administration of the guest OS and installed software.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Caching does not provide custom guest operating systems.

C:

Finished SaaS applications do not expose guest OS configuration to customers.

D:

PaaS abstracts the host rather than enabling arbitrary OS administration.

Question 71

Developers need to deploy custom website code but do not want to patch the underlying web server OS. Which cloud service type best describes the requirement?

  1. Software as a service for a completed vendor application
  2. A colocated customer-owned bare-metal server
  3. Infrastructure as a service with tenant-managed OS
  4. Platform as a service

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

PaaS hosts application code while the provider maintains managed runtime infrastructure.

Incorrect Answers

A:

The team needs to run its own code rather than consume an existing app.

B:

Owning servers retains the maintenance burden.

C:

IaaS retains guest patching responsibility.

Question 72

A company adopts a finished cloud CRM application and asks to replace its vendor's backend operating system. Why is that expectation inappropriate?

  1. A CRM subscription is automatically an Azure VM rental
  2. SaaS always includes root access to provider servers
  3. Purchase the SaaS offering and assume unrestricted access to its backend operating-system kernel
  4. SaaS customers manage configuration and data but not the vendor's host OS

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

The application provider operates its own software platform.

Incorrect Answers

A:

An application subscription differs from IaaS capacity.

B:

Root access is not a standard SaaS tenancy privilege.

C:

SaaS customers generally configure the application, not the provider-controlled host operating system.

Question 73

A traffic surge is expected in a single region, and an autoscale rule adds instances within that region. What does this NOT inherently establish?

  1. Protection against loss of the entire Azure region
  2. A potential rise in cost while more workers run
  3. Adjustment of active worker counts in response to metrics
  4. Ability to use more compute capacity under increased load

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Autoscaling alone does not create deployment in a geographically independent region.

Incorrect Answers

B:

Additional capacity commonly adds usage charges.

C:

That can be delivered by autoscale policies.

D:

That is the purpose of scaling out.

Question 74

A business specifies the maximum acceptable duration of a critical service outage after a disaster. What recovery metric is being defined?

  1. A resource's CPU utilization percentage
  2. Recovery time objective (RTO)
  3. Recovery point objective (RPO)
  4. A storage service's monthly price

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

RTO is the desired maximum time to restore service availability after disruption.

Incorrect Answers

A:

CPU load is not a disaster recovery objective.

C:

RPO describes acceptable data-loss exposure measured in time, not outage duration.

D:

Pricing is unrelated to recovery time tolerance.

Question 75

An organization can tolerate losing at most fifteen minutes of transactions after a catastrophic failure. What recovery metric captures that constraint?

  1. Recovery point objective (RPO)
  2. Autoscale threshold
  3. Service availability SLA credit
  4. Recovery time objective (RTO)

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

RPO expresses the maximum acceptable age of recovered data.

Incorrect Answers

B:

CPU-based scale conditions do not define data recovery freshness.

C:

An SLA remedy is not a backup currency or data-loss objective.

D:

RTO measures time to resume a service, not tolerated data loss.

Question 76

A database has redundant live replicas, but an employee accidentally deletes all records through an authorized operation. Which additional practice may be needed?

  1. Assume replica redundancy prevents every logical mistake
  2. Add more load balancer listeners to restore the deleted rows
  3. Recoverable backups or point-in-time restore appropriate to the data service
  4. Increase the VM CPU count

Explanation

Correct Answer

C:

High availability replicas can replicate logical deletions; recovery history is a separate requirement.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Replica systems can propagate accidental changes.

B:

Traffic routing does not reconstruct lost data.

D:

Compute capacity cannot undo a committed deletion.

Question 77

Two instances run on one physical host and the host fails. Which architectural consideration is most relevant?

  1. Place replicas across independent failure domains
  2. Change one instance's display icon
  3. Use two process names on one machine as complete redundancy
  4. Disable monitoring to prevent automatic restarts

Explanation

Correct Answer

A:

Separating infrastructure reduces correlated downtime from one host failure.

Incorrect Answers

B:

A visual difference does not isolate physical failure risk.

C:

Two processes still depend on one host.

D:

Removing observability cannot reduce common host failure.

Question 78

A healthcare application may use public cloud if its organization meets required protection and compliance controls. What principle is correct?

  1. Public cloud automatically disallows all regulated workloads
  2. Deployment model alone does not replace applicable security and compliance assessment
  3. Selecting a large VM makes the application legally compliant
  4. Private cloud guarantees every regulatory obligation is satisfied

Explanation

Correct Answer

B:

A public provider can offer compliant capabilities, but customers must configure and govern their workload appropriately.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Suitability depends on service design and requirements, not a blanket prohibition.

C:

Capacity sizing is unrelated to comprehensive regulatory obligations.

D:

Dedicated ownership does not automatically enforce compliance.

Question 79

An IT team considers building a private cloud because it expects zero ongoing infrastructure cost after purchase. What should its assessment include?

  1. The belief that private cloud has no electricity costs
  2. Only the initial hardware purchase price
  3. A guarantee that dedicated hardware cannot fail
  4. Facilities, support, power, upgrades and staffing over the lifecycle

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Private infrastructure has ongoing operational and renewal expenses.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Physical servers require power and cooling.

B:

Capital cost misses continuing facility, electricity, staff and refresh costs in a private cloud.

C:

Dedicated equipment still needs maintenance and replacement.

Question 80

An analytics design continuously moves large data volumes between a local datacenter and Azure. Which practical factor must be evaluated?

  1. Guaranteed unlimited bandwidth without network design
  2. Plan for peak transfer volume but ignore data egress and networking meter rates
  3. The assumption that all sites share the same local memory
  4. Connectivity throughput, latency and transfer charges

Explanation

Correct Answer

D:

Hybrid designs depend on network capacity and may incur movement costs.

Incorrect Answers

A:

Links have capacity and performance constraints.

B:

A link may handle throughput while still generating material transfer charges.

C:

Separate environments communicate over networks.